There has been much discussion about rape laws in Spain recently given the high profile case of the Manada trial. This article, from the BBC, covers another similar trial where two men were found guilty of sexual assault and not rape. Is it time that the law is changed to meet community expectations, or is the current law fair and reasonable? What do you think?
Questions for discussion:
- According to the article, evidence of 'intimidation and violence' must be shown in order to meet the criteria of 'rape'. If this is the case, what is your opinion?
- Are judges simply following the current law in their rulings, or is the system inherently patriarchal and prone to bias against women?
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